COMEDK UGET-2026 used a computer-based test with 180 multiple-choice questions: 60 each in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Each correct answer earned one mark and wrong answers carried no negative marking, for a maximum raw score of 180. The test was held on 9 May 2026 for the 2026-27 admission cycle. This page records that published pattern; it does not assume rules for a later examination year. The official 2026 brochure and COMEDK’s 2026 exam page are the sources to use for the details below.
What the 2026 paper contained
COMEDK describes the engineering paper as PCM and states that the examination medium was English only. The questions were multiple-choice, with four options per question. The brochure says COMEDK UGET scores are used for merit determination at participating institutions and other institutions expressly permitted to use them; the score is not described as a universal engineering-admission score. Check the current participating-institution and admission rules before treating a COMEDK rank as applicable to a particular college.
For the 2026 test, the official schedule listed Saturday, 9 May 2026. The exam page directed candidates to attend according to the slot and time printed on the Test Admission Ticket (TAT), rather than selecting a shift themselves. The brochure’s exam-day instructions also refer candidates to the timing on their TAT. Use the assigned ticket details for venue and reporting instructions; do not infer a personal slot from the date alone. The 2026 date has passed, so candidates planning a later cycle should follow that cycle’s own notice and brochure instead of carrying these dates forward.
How marks are awarded
The scheme is straightforward: one mark for a correct response, zero for a wrong response and no negative marking. A blank response also earns no mark. With 180 questions at one mark each, the maximum raw score is 180. For example, 132 correct responses and 48 incorrect or blank responses produce 132 raw marks under this scheme. That calculation describes marks, not a predicted percentile or rank.
No negative marking changes the cost of an uncertain attempt: an incorrect answer does not subtract a mark, but it still earns none. A sensible use of the rule is to avoid spending excessive time protecting against a penalty that the scheme does not impose. First answer questions you can solve confidently, then revisit the rest while time remains. Do not confuse “no penalty” with a guarantee that a guess will improve your score; it only means the published scoring formula does not deduct marks for a wrong option.
The official exam page and brochure do not give a single total duration beside the subject-count table. They refer candidates to the time and session on the TAT, and the brochure describes an on-screen countdown timer. For an actual sitting, follow the allotted ticket and the instructions displayed at the centre rather than estimating a duration from the 180-question count.
Use the computer-based controls deliberately
The brochure describes a question palette that shows each question’s status and lets candidates navigate directly to a question. It allows a question to be marked for review and revisited, and says answers can be reviewed, re-answered or changed any number of times before the session is completed. These controls are useful for a two-pass approach: record a response when you have a defensible answer, mark a time-consuming item for review, and return to it after covering easier questions.
That approach is a study tactic, not an additional exam rule. The formal instruction is to finish or change responses before completing the session. Before the test, practise using a computer mouse and reading the on-screen status indicators. The official FAQ says a candidate needs to know how to operate the mouse; it does not call for specialised computer knowledge. If a computer or mouse malfunctions, the brochure instructs candidates to alert the invigilator immediately so the centre can move them to a buffer system and account for lost time.
Raw marks are not the same as rank
The 2026 brochure explains that the exam may run in multiple sessions with different question sets. It says COMEDK uses normalisation to address session-to-session differences and uses percentiles for announcing ranks. In that explanation, a percentile is the percentage of candidates scoring equal to or below a candidate, normalised across sessions. Therefore, a raw score out of 180 is useful for checking your own answer-key performance, but it is not enough on its own to calculate an official rank. Wait for the score and rank information released through the applicant login.
The brochure also sets out tie-break order: first the higher combined Physics-and-Mathematics percentile, then Mathematics percentile, then Chemistry percentile, followed by age, with the older candidate ranked higher. This matters only when test scores are tied; it is not a substitute for the overall ranking process. A candidate receiving zero marks is not assigned a rank, according to the same document.
What to practise, and what the mock test can do
The 2026 brochure describes the syllabus as based on CBSE material, with approximately 33% from Class 11 (2024-25 syllabus) and 67% from Class 12 (2025-26 syllabus). Those are the source’s stated approximate weights for COMEDK UGET-2026, not exact question quotas that can be assigned to every paper. Use the applicable official syllabus to plan topic coverage, and do not treat the percentages as a guarantee about the next examination year.
COMEDK offered online mock tests to candidates with successful payment in their login. The official notice cautions that these mocks do not reflect the actual test pattern or syllabus and do not provide a score; their stated purpose is familiarisation with the computer-based interface. Use them to practise navigation and response controls, not as a reliable measure of readiness or as a substitute for syllabus-based timed practice. For any later COMEDK UGET edition, recheck the new brochure for question counts, scoring, syllabus weighting, session arrangements and dates before planning around the 2026 rules.